2008 Extra Class Question Pool (UPDATE 02/20/2008)
The 2008 Element 4 (Extra Class) question pool is hereby released to public use. This pool will become effective for examinations given on or after July 1, 2008, and will remain active until replaced by a subsequent version. As of this writing, this pool is scheduled to be in service until June 30, 2012.
See next page for a list of corrections and updates as of 02/20/2008
Whenever possible, we have included references to the FCC rules for most of the questions in section E1. The citations are included only as a guideline, and while the QPC has made reasonable efforts to insure accuracy, we do not guarantee that such citations are accurate and/or complete.
Any graphics required for the questions are included at the end of this document, or are available as a separate file from NCVEC.ORG To assist in viewing fine details of some of the drawings associated with certain questions, we recommend increasing the "zoom" factor to 200% (or larger) when viewing the associated graphic.
While every effort was made to insure the accuracy of the material herein, this material was prepared by ordinary human beings, and there is always the possibility that a few typographical or other errors may remain. Users are authorized to make whatever typographic corrections that may be needed, keeping in mind that the basic meaning of a question, answer, or distractor must remain intact. The QPC would appreciate notification of any such errors.
There are 738 questions in the pool as released.
Please refer any questions to the QPC, by e-mail, to QPC@NCVEC.ORG
20 December 2007
Jim Wiley, KL7CC
Chairman, NCVEC Question Pool Committee
Anchorage VEC
QPC members:
Roland Anders, K3RA, Laurel VEC
Perry Green, WY1O, ARRL VEC
Larry Pollock, NB5X, W5YI VEC
The QPC would like to make special note of the assistance provided by:
Tom Fuszard, KF9PU, Milwaukee VEC
Gordon West, WB6NOA
Ward Silver, N0AX, ARRL
John Johnson, W3BE
WCARS VEC
GLAARG VEC
Michael Fox, W6MJF
Pete Trotter, Master Publishing
We also acknowledge assistance from:
The ARRL (several persons)
Proof-readers from many different VECs
Interested hams everywhere who submitted questions and comments, many of which were adopted into this new pool
Updates and corrections to 2008 Extra class pool
The following corrections, deletions, and updates have been incorporated in this version of the pool. Please use this version for preparing exams and related materials.
The following 8 questions were reported as having a problem by one or more persons. However, after further review by the QPC, these questions were determined to be correct as written:
E1C05
E1D01
E3B09
E4C08
E5C13
E6D01
E6D02
E7H05
The following questions were edited or deleted:
E2B08 – missing "period" following "A" in first distractor – corrected
E2E10 – this question was removed by the QPC – do not renumber section
E5C14 – Correct answer "D" should read: "Polar coordinates" instead of "Rectangular coordinates" – corrected
E5D05 – answers "A" and "B" edited as follows:
A. Electric current flow through the space around a permanent magnet
B. The region surrounding a magnet through which a magnetic force acts
E7F07 inserted missing word "of" in second line of question. Question now reads:
Which type of circuit would be a good choice for generating a
series of harmonically related receiver calibration signals?
E8C04 – this question was removed by the QPC – do not renumber section
E9C16 – this question was removed by the QPC – do not renumber section
E9E04 – typo in question number, shows as E90E04, corrected to E9E04
E9H – Sub-element title was incorrect. Correct version should read as follows:
E9H Effective radiated power; system gains and losses; radio direction finding
antennas
E9H12 – typo in distractor "B" (remove word "with", between "balanced" and "against")
E0 – no section title. Correct section title reads as follows:
SUBELEMENT E0 -- Safety [1 exam question -- 1 group]
ELEMENT 4 - EXTRA CLASS QUESTION POOL
Valid July 1, 2008 through June 30, 2012
SYLLABUS
SUBELEMENT E1 -– COMMISSION’S RULES [6 Exam Questions -- 6 Groups]
E1A Operating Standards: frequency privileges for Extra Class amateurs; emission standards; automatic message forwarding; frequency sharing; FCC license actions; stations aboard ships or aircraft
E1B Station restrictions and special operations: restrictions on station location; general operating restrictions, spurious emissions, control operator reimbursement; antenna structure restrictions; RACES operations
E1C Station control: definitions and restrictions pertaining to local, automatic and remote control operation; control operator responsibilities for remote and automatically controlled stations
E1D Amateur Satellite service: definitions and purpose; license requirements for space stations; available frequencies and bands; telecommand and telemetry operations; restrictions, and special provisions; notification requirements
E1E Volunteer examiner program: definitions, qualifications, preparation and administration of exams; accreditation; question pools; documentation requirements
E1F Miscellaneous rules: external RF power amplifiers; Line A; national quiet zone; business communications; compensated communications; spread spectrum; auxiliary stations; reciprocal operating privileges; IARP and CEPT licenses; third party communications with foreign countries; special temporary authority
SUBELEMENT E2 -- OPERATING PRACTICES AND PROCEDURES [5 Exam Questions -- 5 Groups]
E2A Amateur radio in space: amateur satellites; orbital mechanics; frequencies and modes; satellite hardware; satellite operations
E2B Television practices: fast scan television standards and techniques; slow scan television standards and techniques
E2C Operating methods, part 1: contest and DX operating; spread-spectrum transmissions; automatic HF forwarding; selecting an operating frequency
E2D Operating methods, part 2: VHF and UHF digital modes; packet clusters; Automatic Position Reporting System (APRS)
E2E Operating methods, part 3: operating HF digital modes; error correction
SUBELEMENT E3 -- RADIO WAVE PROPAGATION [3 Exam Questions -- 3 Groups]
E3A Propagation and technique, part 1: Earth-Moon-Earth communications; meteor scatter
E3B Propagation and technique, part 2: transequatorial; long path; gray line; multi-path propagation
E3C Propagation and technique, part 3: Auroral propagation; selective fading; radio-path horizon; take-off angle over flat or sloping terrain; earth effects on propagation; less common propagation modes
SUBELEMENT E4 -- AMATEUR RADIO TECHNOLOGY AND MEASUREMENTS [5 Exam Questions -- 5 Groups]
E4A Test equipment: analog and digital instruments; spectrum and network analyzers, antenna analyzers; oscilloscopes; testing transistors; RF measurements
E4B Measurement technique and limitations: instrument accuracy and performance limitations; probes; techniques to minimize errors; measurement of "Q"; instrument calibration
E4C Receiver performance characteristics, part 1: phase noise, capture effect, noise floor, image rejection, MDS, signal-to-noise-ratio; selectivity
E4D Receiver performance characteristics, part 2: blocking dynamic range, intermodulation and cross-modulation interference; 3rd order intercept; desensitization; preselection
E4E Noise suppression: system noise; electrical appliance noise; line noise; locating noise sources; DSP noise reduction; noise blankers
SUBELEMENT E5 -- ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES [4 Exam Questions -- 4 Groups]
E5A Resonance and Q: characteristics of resonant circuits: series and parallel resonance; Q; half-power bandwidth; phase relationships in reactive circuits
E5B Time constants and phase relationships: R/L/C time constants: definition; time constants in RL and RC circuits; phase angle between voltage and current; phase angles of series and parallel circuits
E5C Impedance plots and coordinate systems: plotting impedances in polar coordinates; rectangular coordinates
E5D AC and RF energy in real circuits: skin effect; electrostatic and electromagnetic fields; reactive power; power factor; coordinate systems
SUBELEMENT E6 -- CIRCUIT COMPONENTS [6 Exam Questions -- 6 Groups]
E6A Semiconductor materials and devices: semiconductor materials (germanium, silicon, P-type, N-type); transistor types: NPN, PNP, junction, power; field-effect transistors: enhancement mode; depletion mode; MOS; CMOS; N-channel; P-channel
E6B Semiconductor diodes
E6C Integrated circuits: TTL digital integrated circuits; CMOS digital integrated circuits; gates
E6D Optical devices and toroids: vidicon and cathode-ray tube devices; charge-coupled devices (CCDs); liquid crystal displays (LCDs); toroids: permeability, core material, selecting, winding
E6E Piezoelectric crystals and MMICS: quartz crystals (as used in oscillators and filters); monolithic amplifiers (MMICs)
E6F Optical components and power systems: photoconductive principles and effects, photovoltaic systems, optical couplers, optical sensors, and optoisolators
SUBELEMENT E7 -- PRACTICAL CIRCUITS [8 Exam Questions -- 8 Groups]
E7 Digital circuits: digital circuit principles and logic circuits: classes of logic elements; positive and negative logic; frequency dividers; truth tables
E7B Amplifiers: Class of operation; vacuum tube and solid-state circuits; distortion and intermodulation; spurious and parasitic suppression; microwave amplifiers
E7C Filters and matching networks: filters and impedance matching networks: types of networks; types of filters; filter applications; filter characteristics; impedance matching; DSP filtering
E7D Power supplies and voltage regulators
E7E Modulation and demodulation: reactance, phase and balanced modulators; detectors; mixer stages; DSP modulation and demodulation; software defined radio systems
E7F Frequency markers and counters: frequency divider circuits; frequency marker generators; frequency counters
E7G Active filters and op-amps: active audio filters; characteristics; basic circuit design; operational amplifiers
E7H Oscillators and signal sources: types of oscillators;
synthesizers and phase-locked loops; direct digital synthesizers
SUBELEMENT E8 -- SIGNALS AND EMISSIONS [4 Exam Questions -- 4 Groups]
E8A AC waveforms: sine, square, sawtooth and irregular waveforms; AC measurements; average and PEP of RF signals; pulse and digital signal waveforms
E8B Modulation and demodulation: modulation methods; modulation index and deviation ratio; pulse modulation; frequency and time division multiplexing
E8C Digital signals: digital communications modes; CW; information rate vs. bandwidth; spread-spectrum communications; modulation methods
E8D Waves, measurements, and RF grounding: peak-to-peak values, polarization; RF grounding
SUBELEMENT E9 -– ANTENNAS AND TRANSMISSION LINES [8 Exam Questions -- 8 Groups]
E9A Isotropic and gain antennas: definition; used as a standard for comparison; radiation pattern; basic antenna parameters: radiation resistance and reactance, gain, beamwidth, efficiency
E9B Antenna patterns: E and H plane patterns; gain as a function of pattern; antenna design (computer modeling of antennas); Yagi antennas
E9C Wire and phased vertical antennas: beverage antennas; terminated and resonant rhombic antennas; elevation above real ground; ground effects as related to polarization; take-off angles
E9D Directional antennas: gain; satellite antennas; antenna beamwidth; losses; SWR bandwidth; antenna efficiency; shortened and mobile antennas; grounding
E9E Matching: matching antennas to feed lines; power dividers
E9F Transmission lines: characteristics of open and shorted feed lines: 1/8 wavelength; 1/4 wavelength; 1/2 wavelength; feed lines: coax versus open-wire; velocity factor; electrical length; transformation characteristics of line terminated in impedance not equal to characteristic impedance
E9G The Smith chart
E9F
SUBELEMENT E0 – Safety - [1 exam question -– 1 group]
E0A Safety: amateur radio safety practices; RF radiation hazards; hazardous materials
ELEMENT 4 - EXTRA CLASS QUESTION POOL
Valid July 1, 2008 through June 30, 2012
741 questions total
SUBELEMENT E1 -– COMMISSION’S RULES [6 Exam Questions -- 6 Groups]
E1A Operating Standards: frequency privileges for Extra Class amateurs; emission standards; automatic message forwarding; frequency sharing; FCC license actions; stations aboard ships or aircraft
E1A01 (D) [97.301, 97.305]
When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies will result in a normal USB emission being within the band?
A. The exact upper band edge
B. 300 Hz below the upper band edge
C. 1 kHz below the upper band edge
D. 3 kHz below the upper band edge
~~
E1A02 (D) [97.301, 97.305]
When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies will result in a normal LSB emission being within the band?
A. The exact lower band edge
B. 300 Hz above the lower band edge
C. 1 kHz above the lower band edge
D. 3 kHz above the lower band edge
~~
E1A03 (C) [97.301, 97.305]
With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 14.349 MHz USB. Is it legal to return the call using upper sideband on the same frequency?
A. Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact
B. Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 20 meter band
C. No, my sidebands will extend beyond the band edge
D. No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions above 14.340 MHz
~~
E1A04 (C) [97.301, 97.305]
With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 3.601 MHz LSB. Is it legal to return the call using lower sideband on the same frequency?
A. Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact
B. Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 75 meter phone band
segment
C. No, my sidebands will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment
D. No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 3.610 MHz
~~
E1A05 (C) [97.305]
Which is the only amateur band that does not permit the transmission of phone or image emissions?
A. 160 meters
B. 60 meters
C. 30 meters
D. 17 meters
~~
E1A06 (B) [97.303]
What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?
A. 50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
B. 50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole
C. 100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
D. 100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole
~~
E1A07 (D) [97.303]
What is the only amateur band where transmission on specific channels rather than a range of frequencies is permitted?
A. 12 meter band
B. 17 meter band
C. 30 meter band
D. 60 meter band
~~
E1A08 (C) [97.303]
What is the only emission type permitted to be transmitted on the 60 meter band by an amateur station?
A. CW
B. RTTY Frequency shift keying
C. Single sideband, upper sideband only
D. Single sideband, lower sideband only
~~
E1A09 (A) [97.301]
Which frequency bands contain at least one segment authorized only to control operators holding an Amateur Extra Class operator license?
A. 80/75, 40, 20 and 15 meters
B. 80/75, 40, 20, and 10 meters
C. 80/75, 40, 30 and 10 meters
D. 160, 80/75, 40 and 20 meters
~~
E1A10 (B) [97.219]
If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?
A. The control operator of the packet bulletin board station
B. The control operator of the originating station
C. The control operators of all the stations in the system
D. The control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications
~~
E1A11 (A) [97.219]
What is the first action you should take if your digital message forwarding station inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules?
A. Discontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become aware of it
B. Notify the originating station that the communication does not comply with FCC rules
C. Notify the nearest FCC Field Engineer’s office
D. Discontinue forwarding all messages
~~
E1A12 (A) [97.11]
If an amateur station is installed on board a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?
A. Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft
B. The amateur station operator must agree to not transmit when the main ship or aircraft radios are in use
C. It must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply
D. Its operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license
~~
E1A13 (B) [97.5]
When a US-registered vessel is in international waters, what type of FCC-issued license or permit is required to transmit amateur communications from an on-board amateur transmitter?
A. Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement
B. Any amateur license or reciprocal permit for alien amateur licensee
C. Only General class or higher amateur licenses
D. An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
~~
E1B Station restrictions and special operations: restrictions on station location; general operating restrictions, spurious emissions, control operator reimbursement; antenna structure restrictions; RACES operations
E1B01 (D) [97.3]
Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?
A. An amateur station transmission made at random without the proper call sign identification
B. A signal transmitted in a way that prevents its detection by any station other than the intended recipient
C. Any transmitted bogus signal that interferes with another licensed radio station
D. An emission outside its necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted
~~
E1B02 (D) [97.13]
Which of the following factors might cause the physical location of an amateur station apparatus or antenna structure to be restricted?
A. The location is in or near an area of political conflict, military maneuvers or major construction
B. The location's geographical or horticultural importance
C. The location is in an ITU zone designated for coordination with one or more foreign governments
D. The location is significant to our environment, American history, architecture, or culture.
~~
E1B03 (A) [97.13]
Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?
A. 1 mile
B. 3 miles
C. 10 miles
D. 30 miles
~~
E1B04 (C) [97.13, 1.1305-1.1319]
What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historical Places?
A. A proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service
B. A letter of intent must be filed with the National Audubon Society
C. An Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC
D. A form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior
~~
E1B05 (B) [97.15]
What height restrictions apply to an amateur station antenna structure not close to a public use airport unless the FAA is notified and it is registered with the FCC?
A. It must not extend more than 300 feet above average height of terrain surrounding the site
B. It must be no higher than 200 feet above ground level at its site
C. There are no height restrictions because the structure obviously would not be a hazard to aircraft in flight
D. It must not extend more than 100 feet above sea level or the rim of the nearest valley or canyon
~~
E1B06 (A) [97.15]
Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site within 20,000 feet of a public use airport?
A. You may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC
B. No special rules apply if your antenna structure will be less than 300 feet in height
C. You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins
D. You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority
~~
E1B07 (A) [97.15]
Whose approval is required before erecting an amateur station antenna located at or near a public use airport if the antenna would exceed a certain height depending upon the antenna’s distance from the nearest active runway?
A. The FAA must be notified and it must be registered with the FCC
B. Approval must be obtained from the airport manager
C. Approval must be obtained from the local zoning authorities
D. The FAA must approve any antenna structure that is higher than 20 feet
~~
E1B08 (D) [97.121]
On what frequencies may the operation of an amateur station be restricted if its emissions cause interference to the reception of a domestic broadcast station on a receiver of good engineering design?
A. On the frequency used by the domestic broadcast station
B. On all frequencies below 30 MHz
C. On all frequencies above 30 MHz
D. On the interfering amateur service transmitting frequencies
~~
E1B09 (B) [97.3]
What is the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service (RACES)?
A. A radio service using amateur service frequencies on a regular basis for communications that can reasonably be furnished through other radio services
B. A radio service of amateur stations for civil defense communications during periods of local, regional, or national civil emergencies
C. A radio service using amateur service frequencies for broadcasting to the public during periods of local, regional or national civil emergencies
D. A radio service using local government frequencies by Amateur Radio operators for civil emergency communications
~~
E1B10 (C) [97.407]
Which amateur stations may be operated in RACES?
A. Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators
B. Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class operator's station
C. Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served
D. Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS)
~~
E1B11 (A) [97.407]
What frequencies are normally authorized to an amateur station participating in RACES?
A. All amateur service frequencies otherwise authorized to the control operator
B. Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands
C. Specific local government channels
D. Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels
~~
E1B12 (B) [97.407]
What are the frequencies authorized to an amateur station participating in RACES during a period when the President's War Emergency Powers are in force?
A. All frequencies in the amateur service authorized to the control operator
B. Specific amateur service frequency segments authorized in FCC Part 214
C. Specific local government channels
D. Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels
~~
E1B13 (C) [97.407]
What communications are permissible in RACES?
A. Any type of communications when there is no emergency
B. Any Amateur Radio Emergency Service communications
C. Authorized civil defense emergency communications affecting the immediate safety of life and property
D. National defense and security communications authorized by the President
~~
E1C LOCAL, REMOTE AND AUTOMATIC CONTROL – 10 questions
Definitions and restrictions pertaining to local, automatic and remote control operation; amateur radio and the Internet; control operator responsibilities for remote and automatically controlled stations
E1C01 (D) [97.3]
What is a remotely controlled station?
A. A station operated away from its regular home location
B. A station controlled by someone other than the licensee
C. A station operating under automatic control
D. A station controlled indirectly through a control link
~~
E1C02 (A) [97.3, 97.109]
What is meant by automatic control of a station?
A. The use of devices and procedures for control so that the control operator does not have to be present at a control point
B. A station operating with its output power controlled automatically
C. Remotely controlling a station’s antenna pattern through a directional control link
D. The use of a control link between a control point and a locally controlled station
~~
E1C03 (B) [97.3, 97.109]
How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?
A. Under local control there is no control operator
B. Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point
C. Under automatic control there is no control operator
D. Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point
~~
E1C04 (B) [97.109]
When may an automatically controlled station retransmit third party communications?
A. Never
B. Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
C. When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations
D. When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration
~~
E1C05 (A) [97.109]
When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?
A. Never
B. Only when transmitting an RTTY or data emissions
C. When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations
D. When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration
~~
E1C06 (C) [97.109]
Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?
A. Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station
B. A control operator need not be present at the control point
C. A control operator must be present at the control point
D. Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled
~~
E1C07 (C) [97.3]
What is meant by local control?
A. Controlling a station through a local auxiliary link
B. Automatically manipulating local station controls
C. Direct manipulation of the transmitter by a control operator
D. Controlling a repeater using a portable handheld transceiver
~~
E1C08 (B) [97.213]
What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station’s transmissions if its control link malfunctions?
A. 30 seconds
B. 3 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 10 minutes
~~
E1C09 (D) [97.205]
Which of these frequencies are available for automatically controlled ground-station repeater operation?
A. 18.110 - 18.168 MHz
B. 24.940 - 24.990 MHz
C. 10.100 - 10.150 MHz
D. 29.500 - 29.700 MHz
~~
E1C10 (B) [97.113]
What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations?
A. Only beacon, repeater or space stations
B. Only auxiliary, repeater or space stations
C. Only earth stations, repeater stations or model crafts
D. Only auxiliary, beacon or space stations
~~
E1D Amateur Satellite service: definitions and purpose; license requirements for space stations; available frequencies and bands; telecommand and telemetry operations; restrictions, and special provisions; notification requirements
E1D01 (A) [97.3]
What is the definition of the term telemetry?
A. One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
B. A two-way interactive transmission
C. A two-way single channel transmission of data
D. One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance
~~
E1D02 (C) [97.3]
What is the amateur-satellite service?
A. A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self-training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs
B. A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites
C. A radio communications service using amateur stations on satellites
D. A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for weather information gathering
~~
E1D03 (B) [97.3]
What is a telecommand station in the amateur satellite service?
A. An amateur station located on the Earth’s surface for communications with other Earth stations by means of Earth satellites
B. An amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify or terminate certain functions of a space station
C. An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth’s surface
D. An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurements of upper atmosphere data from space
~~
E1D04 (A) [97.3]
What is an Earth station in the amateur satellite service?
A. An amateur station within 50 km of the Earth's surface for communications with amateur stations by means of objects in space
B. An amateur station that is not able to communicate using amateur satellites
C. An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurement of upper atmosphere data from space
D. Any amateur station on the surface of the Earth
~~
E1D05 (C) [97.207]
What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?
A. Any except those of Technician Class operators
B. Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
C. A holder of any class of license
D. Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators
~~
E1D06 (A) [97.207]
Which of the following special provisions must a space station incorporate in order to comply with space station requirements?
A. The space station must be capable of effecting a cessation of transmissions by telecommand when so ordered by the FCC
B. The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years
C. The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA
D. The station call sign must appear on all sides of the spacecraft
~~
E1D07 (A) [97.207]
Which amateur service HF bands have frequencies authorized to space stations?
A. Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m, 12m and 10m
B. Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m and 10m bands
C. 40m, 30m, 20m, 15m, 12m and 10m bands
D. All HF bands
~~
E1D08 (D) [97.207]
Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space stations?
A. 6 meters and 2 meters
B. 6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters
C. 2 meters and 1.25 meters
D. 2 meters
~~
E1D09 (B) [97.207]
Which amateur service UHF bands have frequencies available for a space station?
A. 70 cm
B. 70 cm, 23 cm, 13 cm
C. 70 cm and 33 cm
D. 33 cm and 13 cm
~~
E1D10 (B) [97.211]
Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?
A. Any amateur station designated by NASA
B. Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee
C. Any amateur station so designated by the ITU
D. All of these choices are correct
~~
E1D11 (D) [97.209]
Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?
A. Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC’s International Bureau
B. Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
C. Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators
D. Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
~~
E1D12 (B) [97.207]
Who must be notified before launching an amateur space station?
A. The National Aeronautics and Space Administration, Houston, TX
B. The FCC’s International Bureau, Washington, DC
C. The Amateur Satellite Corp., Washington, DC
D. All of these answers are correct
~~
E1E Volunteer examiner program: definitions, qualifications, preparation and administration of exams; accreditation; question pools; documentation requirements
E1E01 (D) [97.509]
What is the minimum number of qualified VEs required to administer an Element 4 amateur operator license examination?
A. 5
B. 2
C. 4
D. 3
~~
E1E02 (C) [97.523]
Where are the questions for all written US amateur license examinations listed?
A. In FCC Part 97
B. In an FCC-maintained question pool
C. In the VEC-maintained question pool
D. In the appropriate FCC Report and Order
~~
E1E03 (A) [97.523]
Who is responsible for maintaining the question pools from which all amateur license examination questions must be taken?
A. All of the VECs
B. The VE team
C. The VE question pool team
D. The FCC’s Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
~~
E1E04 (C) [97.521]
What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?
A. A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations
B. A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license examinations
C. An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate amateur operator license examinations
D. The person that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager
~~
E1E05 (B) [97.525, 97.3]
What is a VE?
A. An amateur operator who is approved by three or more fellow volunteer examiners to administer amateur license examinations
B. An amateur operator who is approved by a VEC to administer amateur operator license examinations
C. An amateur operator who administers amateur license examinations for a fee
D. An amateur operator who is approved by an FCC staff member to administer amateur operator license examinations
~~
E1E06 (A) [97.509]
What is a VE team?
A. A group of at least three VEs who administer examinations for an amateur operator license
B. The VEC staff
C. One or two VEs who administer examinations for an amateur operator license
D. A group of FCC Volunteer Enforcers who investigate Amateur Rules violations
~~
E1E07 (C) [97.509]
Which of the following persons seeking to become VEs cannot be accredited?
A. Persons holding less than an Advanced Class operator license
B. Persons less than 21 years of age
C. Persons who have ever had an amateur operator or amateur station license suspended or revoked
D. Persons who are employees of the federal government
~~
E1E08 (D) [97.5091, 97.525]
Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?
A. Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted
B. The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau
C. The prospective VE obtains accreditation from a VE team
D. The procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner
~~
E1E09 (A) [97.509]
Where must the VE team be while administering an examination?
A. All of the administering VEs must be present where they can observe the examinees throughout the entire examination
B. The VEs must leave the room after handing out the exam(s) to allow the examinees to concentrate on the exam material
C. The VEs may be elsewhere provided at least one VE is present and is observing the examinees throughout the entire examination
D. The VEs may be anywhere as long as they each certify in writing that examination was administered properly
~~
E1E10 (C) [97.509]
Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?
A. The VEC coordinating the session
B. The FCC
C. Each administering VE
D. The VE session manager
~~
E1E11 (B) [97.509]
What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner’s instructions during an amateur operator license examination?
A. Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination
B. Immediately terminate the candidate’s examination
C. Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results
D. Immediately terminate everyone’s examination and close the session
~~
E1E12 (C) [97.509]
To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination?
A. Employees of the VE
B. Friends of the VE
C. The VE’s close relatives as listed in the FCC rules
D. All these answers are correct
~~
E1E13 (A) [97.509]
What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?
A. Revocation of the VE’s amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE’s amateur operator license grant
B. A fine of up to $1000 per occurrence
C. A sentence of up to one year in prison
D. All of these choices are correct
~~
E1E14 (C) [97.509] [edited, was E1F19, edited]
What must the VE team do with the examinee’s test papers once they have finished the examination?
A. The VE team must collect and send them to the NCVEC
B. The VE team must collect and send them to the coordinating VEC for grading
C. The VE team must collect and grade them immediately
D. The VE team must collect and send them to the FCC for grading
~~
E1E15 (B) [97.509]
What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?
A. Photocopy all examination documents and forwards them to the FCC for processing
B. Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the VE requirements
C. Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license
D. All these answers are correct
~~
E1E16 (A) [97.509]
What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam?
A. Return the application document to the examinee
B. Maintain the application form with the VEC’s records
C. Send it to the FCC
D. Destroy the application form
~~
E1E17 (A) [97.519]
What are the consequences of failing to appear for re-administration of an examination when so directed by the FCC?
A. The licensee's license will be cancelled
B. The person may be fined or imprisoned
C. The licensee is disqualified from any future examination for an amateur operator license grant
D. All of the above
~~
E1E18 (A) [97.527]
For which types of out-of-pocket expenses may VEs and VECs be reimbursed?
A. Preparing, processing, administering and coordinating an examination for an amateur radio license
B. Teaching an amateur operator license examination preparation course
C. No expenses are authorized for reimbursement
D. Providing amateur operator license examination preparation training materials
~~
E1E19 (A) [97.509, 97.527]
How much reimbursement may the VE team and VEC accept for preparing, processing, administering and coordinating an examination?
A. Actual out-of-pocket expenses
B. The national minimum hourly wage for time spent providing examination services
C. Up to the maximum fee per examinee announced by the FCC annually
D. As much as the examinee is willing to donate
~~
E1E20 (C) [97.509]
What is the minimum age to be a volunteer examiner?
A. 13 years old
B. 16 years old
C. 18 years old
D. 21 years old
~~
E1F Miscellaneous rules: external RF power amplifiers; Line A; national quiet zone; business communications; compensated communications; spread spectrum; auxiliary stations; reciprocal operating privileges; IARP and CEPT licenses; third party communications with foreign countries; special temporary authority
E1F01 (B) [97.305]
On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?
A. Only on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz
B. Only on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz
C. Only on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz
D. Only on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz
~~
E1F02 (A) [97.5]
Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed US citizen to operate in many European countries, and alien amateurs from many European countries to operate in the US?
A. CEPT agreement
B. IARP agreement
C. ITU reciprocal license
D. All of these choices are correct
~~
E1F03 (B) [97.5]
Which of the following operating arrangements allow an FCC-licensed US citizen and many Central and South American amateur operators to operate in each other’s countries?
A. CEPT agreement
B. IARP agreement
C. ITU agreement
D. All of these choices are correct
~~
E1F04 (B) [97.315]
What does it mean if an external RF amplifier is listed on the FCC database as certificated for use in the amateur service?
A. The RF amplifier may be marketed for use in any radio service
B. That particular RF amplifier may be marketed for use in the amateur service
C. All similar RF amplifiers produced by other manufacturers may be marketed
D. All RF amplifiers produced by that manufacturer may be marketed
~~
E1F05 (A) [97.315]
Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?
A. It was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station
B. The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit
C. It was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require certification of RF power amplifiers
D. It was imported from a manufacturer in another country, and it was certificated by that country’s government
~~
E1F06 (A) [97.3]
Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?
A. A line roughly parallel to and south of the US-Canadian border
B. A line roughly parallel to and west of the US Atlantic coastline
C. A line roughly parallel to and north of the US-Mexican border and Gulf coastline
D. A line roughly parallel to and east of the US Pacific coastline
~~
E1F07 (D) [97.303]
Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located north of Line A?
A. 440 - 450 MHz.
B. 53 - 54 MHz
C. 222 - 223 MHz
D. 420 - 430 MHz
~~
E1F08 (C) [97.3]
What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?
A. An area in Puerto Rico surrounding the Aricebo Radio Telescope
B. An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area
C. An area surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory
D. An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral
~~
E1F09 (D) [97.113]
When may the control operator of a repeater accept payment for providing communication services to another party?
A. When the repeater is operating under portable power
B. When the repeater is operating under local control
C. During Red Cross or other emergency service drills
D. Under no circumstances
~~
E1F10 (D) [97.113]
When may an amateur station send a message to a business?
A. When the total money involved does not exceed $25
B. When the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency
C. When transmitting international third-party communications
D. When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications
~~
E1F11 (A) [97.113]
Which of the following types of amateur-operator-to-amateur-operator communications are prohibited?
A. Communications transmitted for hire or m